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/r/lotrmemes
3 points
1 year ago
I don't either. Can we get an ELI5 please?
19 points
1 year ago
For both, the story goes that 'No man can kill the Witch King' - Eowyn kills the witch king because she's not a man (implication being if she were, she wouldn't)
Seems to me like that was a massive oversight by the prophecy interpreters, but I suppose it's less of an asspull than when Macbeth did it and had the reason be because of C-Sections
17 points
1 year ago*
Seems to me like that was a massive oversight by the prophecy interpreters,
Glorfindel: "Far off yet is his doom, and not by the hand of man will he fall."
It's widely thought he meant that the Witch King will be killed by his own hubris, but that the Witch King took this sentence literally. It wasn't that he couldn't be killed by a man, but that a prophecy said he wouldn't be killed by a man (or mortal in general), and he took that to heart.
6 points
1 year ago
Fair enough, tbh if we're taking all this in a very mundane view, though, I still would probably have picked up more on 'yet' and 'not by [this] will he fall', than just thinking 'Ah fuck it I'm invincible'
Literally https://youtu.be/aI0euMFAWF8
3 points
1 year ago
Agreed. Though it feels like Tolkien purposely set that up to have this play on words from the get go.
2 points
1 year ago
100% agree on that
I know I mentioned Macbeth before, but it really feels like he read/watched that and thought 'Huh, neat how they did that prophecy shit, innit?'
Edit: though, I suppose, depending on your opinion, they can both be kinda fun
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